Anilrgowda

My local subnet is 10.0.1.x and I'm trying to establish a dial-up vpn connection to a network that is also a 10.0.1.x subnet. I connect fine but can't access any resources on the remote subnet - which is expected. All the research I've done says it's best to change one of the subnets - and I agree, but does anyone know if there are any work-arounds without changing one of the subnets? Some have said it is possible to add a static route to get it to work, but they don't give details, or the instructions they give don't apply to my specific situation. If my local subnet is 10.0.1.x and I'm assigned 10.0.1.210 from the vpn connection, and I want to communicate with 10.0.1.6 that is on the remote subnet, how can I tell XP to route traffic destined to 10.0.1.6 through the vpn gateway? Right now it assumes that 10.0.1.6 is on the local subnet so it doesn't forward packets to the gateway.

I've tried> "route add 10.0.1.6 mask 255.255.255.255 10.0.1.210" but it gives an error.

Is there any way around this for those rare instances when both are on the same subnet and you can't change the ip scheme?

Anilrgowda

When using the windows VPN, the gateway to the corporate network is the same as the assigned VPN/Virtual adapter's IP. This may be static or dynamic. The "use default gateway" option creates a route forcing all traffic to the remote network using that gateway. You can verify this by running route print at a command line. Therefore there is nothing gained by adding a route, and actually you should receive an error to the effect that the route is alresdy in place. If you wish to try, the route statement would look like the following, assuming the VPN client were assigned the IP of 10.0.1.210 (which is also the VPN gateway address)
route add 10.0.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.0.1.210
this will route all 10.0.1.x traffic to the VPN server, however it will not as a rule allow you to connect to other devices on the remote network other than the VPN server.